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statueofmike
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i threw a reply up on the super-thread. might be wrong. enjoy!

In reply to your comment:
I don't follow that, hueco_tanks.

The probability of anyone having a male versus female child is 1:1, ruling out any other influences such as the health of the mother.

So the odds that your friend has only two male children is 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/4, right?

And the base probability that the unknown child is a boy is 1/2.

Where does 1/3 come in?



written by bamdrew  | 2 years 7 months 1 week ago | CH
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